(A) 14
(B) 13
(C) 11
(D) 12
Correct Answer: 14
First, write \(40\) in its prime factorised form.
Therefore,
For \(40^n\) to divide \(60!\), the power of \(2\) in \(60!\) must be at least \(3n\) and the power of \(5\) must be at least \(n\).
Now calculate the power of \(2\) in \(60!\).
Hence, power of \(2\) in \(60!\) is \(56\).
Now calculate the power of \(5\) in \(60!\).
Thus, \(n\) must satisfy
From \(3n \le 56\),
Combining both conditions, the largest possible integer value of \(n\) is
Therefore, the correct answer is 14.
Updated for JEE Main 2026: This PYQ is important for JEE Mains, JEE Advanced and other competitive exams. Practice more questions from this chapter.